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Dake's Studies : also from Was Jesus pre-existent
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Reply
 Message 1 of 16 in Discussion 
From: MSN NicknameFreeborn551  (Original Message)Sent: 3/5/2007 11:49 PM
This was Tweety's third post in her original thread, of Was Jesus pre-existent before incarnation.  My question is was he incarnate?  Where is such a thing taught in SCRIPTURE?  I say it is NOT.  No one can find me one verse saying this.  So I must conclude that it is FALSE TEACHINGS.
 
So here is her third post:  ( I have not dealt with this yet.)  I want her and you all to first deal with my responses to this, else why do it?  The only way to learn truth is to seek for the answers in Scripture.  Dakes did not have the correct answers, so you must find the Scripture answers to my responses.

From: <NOBR>MSN NicknameTweety134</NOBR> Sent: 2/28/2007 8:05 PM

The Union of the Two Natures of Jesus Christ

The above-indicated studies on the divinity and humanity of Jesus Christ prove that He was a Divine-human Being. The orthodox theory holds that the two natures of Christ were both complete in themselves yet so organically and indissolubly united that no third nature is formed thereby. It forbids us to divide the person and confound the two natures of Jesus Christ. Being truly divine He is a true representative of God, and being truly human He is a true representative of man.

 

Christ constantly spoke of Himself as a single person and not as two persons in one. There is no interchange of speech between the two natures as between two persons. The attributes and powers of both natures are ascribed to the one person so that they are operated as part of a single individual. There is no double personality, but one single unit of characteristics of both the human and the divine. Just as any father and mother impart certain traits to the offspring, making a single person with characteristics of both parents, so the human and the divine were united in the one person of Jesus Christ-with one body, soul, and spirit and with one consciousness and one will.

 

The Fatherhood of God and the motherhood of Mary produced a single personality. After all, it must be remembered that God made man with the same bodily parts as He has in His Spirit body, only our bodies are earthly and human and His is spiritual and divine. He made man with the same kind of soul with feelings, emotions, passions, desires, and appetites, capable of the same soul-acts as He Himself was, only our soul is finite and His is infinite. He made man with a spirit with all the attributes and powers that He has, capable of the same acts; only our spirits are finite and His is infinite. In other words, man is endowed with exactly the same traits, characteristics, attributes, powers, feelings, and passions as God, only on a finite scale.

 

With this in mind one can see that the soul and spirit faculties that were born in Jesus Christ by a divine Father and a human mother were exactly the same as in any other being like God; so when Christ acted and used any one attribute or power as a man it was like the exercise of God in the same aspects, only His faculties were perfectly untainted with the fall and its effects. When Christ acted He was like man before the fall and not like sinful man since the fall. Every fallen man when he is recreated in Christ and made a new creature is capable of proper exercise of his faculties in holy and lawful uses. (See Lesson Four, Point II, 8 and 9.)

 

We may express it this way: man in his unfallen state acted exactly like God in the exercise of his faculties, only his attributes and powers were limited. He was capable of the same powers and acts only on a finite scale. What is finite in man is infinite in God. Holy man when he is energized and acted upon and endued with supernatural powers can exercise his natural attributes and faculties in a supernatural degree or measure, depending upon what extent he is yielded to and energized by the Spirit of God. For example, Christ and the disciples when endued with power from on high were capable of God-action to destroy sin and sickness as much as if God Himself were doing the work without using them as instruments.

 

It must also be remembered that men when born again become partakers of the divine nature and to the extent to which that nature controls and works in and through their created faculties they live divine lives and do divine works. In such men the created faculties are liberated from evil acts and evil powers and become acts of divine energy through the Holy Spirit. Just as Christ was perfectly helpless in Himself and acted, spoke, worked, lived, and did all things through the anointing of the Holy Spirit, the believer to the extent that he becomes like Christ becomes God-inspired and God-energized and God-operated. (See Point V, 31, for Scriptures of .l perfectly divine life in human form.) Thus the Christian fully living in the fullness of God lives a divine-human life in the Holy Spirit by the very presence and power of God in the human soul and spirit.

 

If we can understand these things, we certainly can understand how God could become so perfectly human and yet remain so perfectly divine as to be a perfect union -God and man in one personality. Whether the divine attributes and powers of God in Christ were limited and to what extent is a great question in Christian circles. Whether He laid them aside entirely for a time, or whether they were possessed by Him and voluntarily limited will always be a point of controversy. However, this much is settled that He was limited in the days of His flesh, as we shall see in Point VIII below; whether He was limited constitutionally or voluntarily is not the point. It is a fact that if it were done constitutionally it was nevertheless voluntary as stilted in John 10:18; Heb. 10:5-9. He was not forced to do one thing. Everything was a voluntary action on His part. It matters not whether it was constitutional, or whether He still retained all the divine powers and attributes in His person and chose to limit their use for His time of life on Earth; the fact remains that He was limited as a man, and if His choice was so powerful as to do away with all use of them, what is the difference between laying them aside and still retaining them without power to use them?

 

It was important that He limit Himself as a man to set the right example for man so that he can be inspired to lisle like God on Earth by the same means Christ used. For all the arguments about His having two personalities, two natures in one personality, human nature without personality, or divine nature without human traits-the fact will always remain that He was both human and divine, and if some cannot understand the how of it, the fact of it can be believed and must be if eve want harmony of all Scriptures. One certainty is that His human nature had no separate existence before its union with the divine and is not in itself a separate personality from the divine person who became incarnated in human flesh.

 

It was not only important that He have two natures, human and diving for the sake of man, but also for the sake of God, to be a true mediator between God and man. His two-fold nature gives Him fellowship with both parties and capability of representing both to reconcile both. As God He can uphold the dignity of Deity and as man He can be truly sympathetic and meet the needs of man. Because He is God His atonement has infinite value and effect.

A further discussion of the dual natures will be given under Point VIII below.

 

—Dake's Topics


First  Previous  2-16 of 16  Next  Last 
Reply
 Message 2 of 16 in Discussion 
From: MSN NicknameFreeborn551Sent: 3/9/2007 6:30 PM
If we can understand these things, we certainly can understand how God could become so perfectly human and yet remain so perfectly divine as to be a perfect union -God and man in one personality.[dales]
 

OK, Tweety.  I expect you to get to this when you have some time.  You posted these things,  so defend them.  Study to see if these statements came from the Word of God.  You state that you think 99% of Dakes words are true.

 

I have already proven that EVERY single word in this study has been false.  if you think these things are true,  give me Scripture saying the above statement.  Get bill to help you find it if you need to.

I say the above statement is a BIG  LIE   AND NOT ONE TIME WRITTEN IN GOD'S WORD,   SO IT IS NOT GOD'S WORD.

It is lies of Satan.

Now either prove this or disprove it.  If you do not wish to study this and find out if it is true or not,  then we are both just wasting our time.  Do you desire to know?  If so,  seek the above statement in Scripture.

When the word said there is no private interpretation of Scripture,  this  INCLUDED DAKES.

If he did not get the above statement from written Scripture, then he lied.

Jo


Reply
 Message 3 of 16 in Discussion 
From: MSN NicknameFreeborn551Sent: 3/9/2007 6:36 PM
From: <NOBR>MSN NicknameTweety134</NOBR> Sent: 2/28/2007 8:05 PM

The Union of the Two Natures of Jesus Christ

The above-indicated studies on the divinity and humanity of Jesus Christ prove that He was a Divine-human Being. The orthodox theory holds that the two natures of Christ were both complete in themselves yet so organically and indissolubly united that no third nature is formed thereby. It forbids us to divide the person and confound the two natures of Jesus Christ. Being truly divine He is a true representative of God, and being truly human He is a true representative of man.[Dakes]


This article is so filled and riddled with lies, that I do not even have to search for them.  Every single word is a lie.

Take the above paragraph.  I cannot find one single word of this written Scripture.  If you can, then show me.  I say it is a big lie and of Satan.  Not one word of this is God's Word.

It is lies of Satan.  See even he called it a theory.  Theory has no business being taught.  Either get the truth, proven with Written Scripture, or keep quiet.

No one, had or has the right to teach one single word which is not WRITTEN IN SCRIPTURE,  FOR THEN IT IS A LIE,    AND ADDING TO GOD'S WORD,    TAKING AWAY FROM IT, AND CHANGING IT......THE WORK OF THE SERPENT.

So I must conclude that Dakes was a SERPENT.

Give me one single verse stating that Jesus was a divine human or deity.  it is not in the Word of God, so it has to be Satan's word.

If anyone tries to interpret any Scripture, without finding the pure meaning written in another Scripture, then they are making up lies.  If what they say is not written in Scripture, then it is of private interpretation and forbidden by God.


Reply
 Message 4 of 16 in Discussion 
From: MSN NicknameFreeborn551Sent: 3/9/2007 6:37 PM
A further discussion of the dual natures will be given under Point VIII below. [Dakes]

Give me one verse stating that Jesus had a dual nature.  I want to read that or hear all of you admit that it is lies of Satan.

Reply
 Message 5 of 16 in Discussion 
From: MSN NicknameFreeborn551Sent: 3/9/2007 6:43 PM
Christ constantly spoke of Himself as a single person and not as two persons in one. There is no interchange of speech between the two natures as between two persons. The attributes and powers of both natures are ascribed to the one person so that they are operated as part of a single individual. There is no double personality, but one single unit of characteristics of both the human and the divine. Just as any father and mother impart certain traits to the offspring, making a single person with characteristics of both parents, so the human and the divine were united in the one person of Jesus Christ-with one body, soul, and spirit and with one consciousness and one will. [dakes]

The Word said not to think above what is written.

So where is the above 'supposed-to-be' explaination of the nature of Jesus, written in Scripture?  Where did one single  writter in Scripture teach this?  Which one of the Apostles used such words to explain Jesus?

Did Peter state this? or Paul? or John? or even Jesus himself.  Do you believe that Jesus taught us what we are to believe and need to know?

If so,  show me the above words in Jesus' own words.  If you cannot do this,  then admit that it is lies of Satan.  If a man spoke this many lies of Satan,  I must conclude that he was a minister of Satan.  If you wish to show me different,  then present me with Scripture   stating any of the above statement from Dakes,  saying exactly what Dakes said.

I say it is impossible.  Give me one verse saying that Jesus had a divine nature.  It does not exist.


Reply
 Message 6 of 16 in Discussion 
From: MSN NicknameFreeborn551Sent: 3/9/2007 6:52 PM
With this in mind one can see that the soul and spirit faculties that were born in Jesus Christ by a divine Father and a human mother were exactly the same as in any other being like God; so when Christ acted and used any one attribute or power as a man it was like the exercise of God in the same aspects, only His faculties were perfectly untainted with the fall and its effects. When Christ acted He was like man before the fall and not like sinful man since the fall. Every fallen man when he is recreated in Christ and made a new creature is capable of proper exercise of his faculties in holy and lawful uses. (See Lesson Four, Point II, 8 and 9.) [Dakes]

This is certainly a lie and denies the fact that Jesus was made in all points like his brethren,  humans.  Jesus resisted sin in exactly the same way we must.  If he had a divine nature, as being God,  then he was not on the same grounds as we are, and was not a prefect example for us.

If this were true,  (which it is not)  then the fact that Jesus never sinned would mean ABSOLUTELY NOTHING.

God cannot sin.  Then this false teacher is trying to say that Jesus did not sin because he was God and could not sin.  This is a lie of the devil.  Jesus proved sin can be resisted in human flesh.  He depended on God,  but not because he WAS PART GOD OR WHOLLY GOD OR ANY OF THIS FALSE TEACHING.

No Scripture states that Jeus was made part man and part God.  It is made up lies.  anyone teaching such stuff had NO REVELATION  FROM GOD.

He was on the wrong foundation therefore all his teachings are also wrong.

I see no truth in anything this man said.  It is not written in Scripture, therefore cannot be proven.  If God did not tell us these things, then they are lies of Satan.

Jesus was made perfect in the things he suffered.  He suffered just as any man would do.  He resisted every temptation,  not because he was God, but because he loved God and obeyed God in all things.

This kind of teaching completely does away with this TRUTH.


Reply
 Message 7 of 16 in Discussion 
From: MSN NicknameFreeborn551Sent: 3/9/2007 6:58 PM
It must also be remembered that men when born again become partakers of the divine nature and to the extent to which that nature controls and works in and through their created faculties they live divine lives and do divine works. In such men the created faculties are liberated from evil acts and evil powers and become acts of divine energy through the Holy Spirit. Just as Christ was perfectly helpless in Himself and acted, spoke, worked, lived, and did all things through the anointing of the Holy Spirit, the believer to the extent that he becomes like Christ becomes God-inspired and God-energized and God-operated. (See Point V, 31, for Scriptures of .l perfectly divine life in human form.) Thus the Christian fully living in the fullness of God lives a divine-human life in the Holy Spirit by the very presence and power of God in the human soul and spirit. [Dakes]

In this paragraph, Dakes tries to put Jesus on the very same kind of grounds all true Christians are on.  So this is a total DEPARTURE from what he has stated in the other paragraphs.

Here he is trying to say that Jesus could only exercise divine power and nature only by being endued with power from the Holy Ghost.  I fully agree with this.  But see that it denies the other teaching that Jesus was born with a divine nature and had a dual nature.

Either Jesus was like us, or he was not.  Which is it?  Dakes is saying both here, proving he was totally confused.

Jesus partook of the divine nature in EXACTLY the same way we do.  He was not born with it.


Reply
 Message 8 of 16 in Discussion 
From: MSN NicknameFreeborn551Sent: 3/9/2007 7:40 PM
If we can understand these things, we certainly can understand how God could become so perfectly human and yet remain so perfectly divine as to be a perfect union -God and man in one personality. Whether the divine attributes and powers of God in Christ were limited and to what extent is a great question in Christian circles. Whether He laid them aside entirely for a time, or whether they were possessed by Him and voluntarily limited will always be a point of controversy. However, this much is settled that He was limited in the days of His flesh, as we shall see in Point VIII below; whether He was limited constitutionally or voluntarily is not the point. It is a fact that if it were done constitutionally it was nevertheless voluntary as stilted in John 10:18; Heb. 10:5-9. He was not forced to do one thing. Everything was a voluntary action on His part. It matters not whether it was constitutional, or whether He still retained all the divine powers and attributes in His person and chose to limit their use for His time of life on Earth; the fact remains that He was limited as a man, and if His choice was so powerful as to do away with all use of them, what is the difference between laying them aside and still retaining them without power to use them? [Dakes]

A Person needs no more than this one paragraph to prove once and for all, that this man, Dakes,  had no true revelation or understanding.

He is clearly 'whistling' in the dark here.  He admits right here that he neither knows this truth, nor does he think it even matters!!!

(and this is a man of God?  I think not)  I challenge any of you to show me one of the underlined words above,  in any Scripture.  It is simply not there.  No Apostle or writter of the Word used such speech, so why did Dakes have to say such words to TEACH?  I tell you it is because he is teaching LIES.

How could a true teacher of God make such statements?  That it does not even matter,  just because he could not see the truth of it.?

See, he could not depart with the lies which had been handed down to him, so he continues to try and say that Jesus was part God.  But then he sees that something else is taught in Scripture,  so he did not know what to do with it.

He probably knew that no Scripture states that God became man, so he was at a loss.


Reply
 Message 9 of 16 in Discussion 
From: MSN NicknameFreeborn551Sent: 3/9/2007 7:52 PM
It was important that He limit Himself as a man to set the right example for man so that he can be inspired to lisle like God on Earth by the same means Christ used. For all the arguments about His having two personalities, two natures in one personality, human nature without personality, or divine nature without human traits-the fact will always remain that He was both human and divine, and if some cannot understand the how of it, the fact of it can be believed and must be if eve want harmony of all Scriptures. One certainty is that His human nature had no separate existence before its union with the divine and is not in itself a separate personality from the divine person who became incarnated in human flesh. [dakes]

If you can show me one word of the above paragraph, in Scripture,  I will eat a ton of bricks!  How can anyone who reads Scripture accept this mumbo-jumbo and call it truth?

Not one single word of the above is written in Scripture.  It is so full of lies, that it stinks!  Show me where one single teacher in Scriptrure ever uttered such words.

Show me one of the above sentences written in Scripture.  You must prove this by written Scripture.  It is not possible.  Paul did not make such statements.  No one did.  Where did Jesus say such words?  If he did not say it,  how can anyone else declare this is true?

Dakes claimed that this is a CERTAINTY that a divine person became incarnate in human flesh.  A certainty?   Where did he get this 'certainty'?  What verse says this LIE?  How is this LIE  a certainty?  Upon what does he base this?  Which Apostle, or prophet?  or Jesus?

He said that Jesus' own personality did not exist apart from the divine.  then what about the first thirty years of Jesus life?  He is ascerting here that Jesus had no human personality of his own.  He is flat denying Jesus Christ as a man.

I say it is a big lie from Satan, the father of lies.

and 99% of this man's stuff is true?  I have proven that every word he said is a LIE.  If you can disprove this,  do so, with Scripture, the only proof of anything.

This is the worst mess of lies I believe I have ever run into.  He and branham are in a black pot together.  Both are liars of Satan.

 


Reply
 Message 10 of 16 in Discussion 
From: MSN NicknameFreeborn551Sent: 3/9/2007 8:03 PM
It was not only important that He have two natures, human and diving for the sake of man, but also for the sake of God, to be a true mediator between God and man. His two-fold nature gives Him fellowship with both parties and capability of representing both to reconcile both. As God He can uphold the dignity of Deity and as man He can be truly sympathetic and meet the needs of man. Because He is God His atonement has infinite value and effect. [dakes]

OK, now this is the last paragraph of this lying mess.

Again, not one word of this is written in Scripture. So where did this man teach any truth?  Certainly not in this study.  It is a playground of ungodly lies.

I challenge you, any of you, to show me even one word of the above mess in Scripture.

1. It was not only important that He have two natures, human and diving for the sake of man, but also for the sake of God, to be a true mediator between God and man.

Where does Scripture say any of this?

2. His two-fold nature gives Him fellowship with both parties and capability of representing both to reconcile both.

Show me that is Scripture.  a two-fold nature?  where does the Word say this/   gives him fellowship with both parties.... where is that stated in Scripture?

3. As God He can uphold the dignity of Deity and as man He can be truly sympathetic and meet the needs of man.

Where does the word say Jesus did anything as God?  Where is upholding diginity of deity mentioned in Scripture? 

4.  Because He is God His atonement has infinite value and effect

Show me that in  Scripture.  because he is God, his atonement has infinite value and effect.......where did he get this statement?  It is most certainly not spoken in God's Word, so it has to be the devil's word.

Now, Tweety,  I have taken every single word of the above study and solidly proven that none of it is written in Scripture.

Now you need to take these posts, one at a time, and show me where I am wrong.  Show me where 99% of this mess is true.

Else you need to check up and prove to yourself if you are carrying truth or lies.  You will be held accountable to God for carrying lies to others.

You need to prove that you are saying truth when you afirm that this man taught 99% truth.

 I say and have proven that 100% of his words are lies of Satan.

Now I have done a lot of work here to try to show you some truth.  Give me the curtersy of dealing with these posts.

Jo


Reply
 Message 11 of 16 in Discussion 
From: MSN NicknameFreeborn551Sent: 3/12/2007 6:29 PM
Tweety, even though you have not dealt with this thread, or my efforts to show you the serious error of Dakes,  I will try this once again to show you how almost 100% of people miss the real truth of Scripture, because they cannot discern who is speaking in each Scripture and who is being spoken about.  This is the main cause of so much error in church circles.
 
People do not realize that in many Scriptures God the Father is speaking either to or about his Son, Jesus, and also many times about his other son, Adam.
 
Then it will change from one verse to another, as Jesus speaks. 
 
Another cause of geat misunderstanding  is the fact  that Jesus is called many things in Scripture.  He is called David,  Joshua, and in this Scripture, he is being referred to as the daughter of Zion. 
 Now I know almost everyone will take issue with me on this matter, but it is only becaues they have not been taught the Word by the anointing of God.
God has to open your understanding.  Every time I teach that Jesus is the wife of God, I am called a false teacher of sorts.
 
But it is because people can only think in a carnal, natural sense.  These things must be understood  SPIRITUAL.
 
Now with that FACT in mind,  read this:
 
<NOBR>Mic 4:9</NOBR> Now why dost thou cry out aloud? is there no king in thee? is thy counsellor perished? for pangs have taken thee as a woman in travail.
<NOBR>Mic 4:10</NOBR> Be in pain, and labour to bring forth, O daughter of Zion, like a woman in travail: for now shalt thou go forth out of the city, and thou shalt dwell in the field, and thou shalt go even to Babylon; there shalt thou be delivered; there the LORD shall redeem thee from the hand of thine enemies.
<NOBR>Mic 4:11</NOBR> Now also many nations are gathered against thee, that say, Let her be defiled, and let our eye look upon Zion.
<NOBR>Mic 4:12</NOBR> But they know not the thoughts of the LORD, neither understand they his counsel: for he shall gather them as the sheaves into the floor.
<NOBR>Mic 4:13</NOBR> Arise and thresh, O daughter of Zion: for I will make thine horn iron, and I will make thy hoofs brass: and thou shalt beat in pieces many people: and I will consecrate their gain unto the LORD, and their substance unto the Lord of the whole earth.

This WOMAN in travail is Jesus at calvary.  Like it or not, this is the true interpretation.  If one takes the time to slowly and prayfully read all Scripture, you can see this.

 

There are clues which prove in many Scriptures that is could only be speaking of Jesus, yet almost everyone puts it on the natural nation of Israel.  Nothing could be further from the truth.  The Word of God plainly shows that this natural nation never at any time did the will of God.  They always ran after their idols.  Only a few of them ever came into truth and served God with their heart.

Now read this:

<NOBR>Mic 5:1</NOBR> Now gather thyself in troops, O daughter of troops: he hath laid siege against us: they shall smite the judge of Israel with a rod upon the cheek.
<NOBR>Mic 5:2</NOBR> But thou, Bethlehem Ephratah, though thou be little among the thousands of Judah, yet out of thee shall he come forth unto me that is to be ruler in Israel; whose goings forth have been from of old, from everlasting.
<NOBR>Mic 5:3</NOBR> Therefore will he give them up, until the time that she which travaileth hath brought forth: then the remnant of his brethren shall return unto the children of Israel.
<NOBR>Mic 5:4</NOBR> And he shall stand and feed in the strength of the LORD, in the majesty of the name of the LORD his God; and they shall abide: for now shall he be great unto the ends of the earth.
<NOBR>Mic 5:5</NOBR> And this man shall be the peace, when the Assyrian shall come into our land: and when he shall tread in our palaces, then shall we raise against him seven shepherds, and eight principal men.
<NOBR>Mic 5:6</NOBR> And they shall waste the land of Assyria with the sword, and the land of Nimrod in the entrances thereof: thus shall he deliver us from the Assyrian, when he cometh into our land, and when he treadeth within our borders.


Now in chapter four, verses 9-13,  that is God speaking to Jesus in prophecy.  He is calling Jesus the daughter of Zion.  When all the nations gathered against 'her' was at Calvary. (If you deny that this woman is Jesus, then show me the female which is the Tree of Life. )

 The world came against Jesus right there.  But God set this person to be the one who would tresh the heathan and bring forth God's true children.  This could only be Jesus and His Apostles.  This is who is being called the Daughter of Zion.

Zion is the true children of God, through faith in Jesus Christ,  not the people of natural Israel.

Now carefully read 5:1-- This is speaking to the people who were baptized into the body of Christ on the Day of Pentecost.  See, the enemy laid seige against them as he smote their judge, Jesus on the 'cheek' with a rod.  This is speaking of the crucifixion of Jesus.

<NOBR>Mic 5:2</NOBR> But thou, Bethlehem Ephratah, though thou be little among the thousands of Judah, yet out of thee shall he come forth unto me that is to be ruler in Israel; whose goings forth have been from of old, from everlasting.


Now read the above verse slowly.  Digest it.  This is one of the main verses which Dakes and most others use to say that Jesus existed before.  But  look at who is speaking in this verse.  God the Father is speaking in first person, about Jesus.  He said "he (Jesus)  shall come forth unto ME (God the Father)  >>>the 'ME' is the subject here...whose goings forth from of old, from everlasting. 

IT  IS  SPEAKING   OF  GOD, THE FATHER THERE,  NOT JESUS.

This is the true revelation which fits all other Scripture.  So to say that it is claiming that Jesus was from of old is to  distort the subject here and this crosses all other Scripture.

You absolutely must interpret any Scripture with ANOTHER SCRIPTURE.  So find some other Scripture which clearly interprets this as saying that Jesus, the Son, was from everlasting. 

The only way this could be true is speaking only in prophecy.  God  had already declared the END  FROM THE BEGINNING.  So it was always declared.  But it did not take place till time for it, which was when Mary gave birth and evil men crucified Jesus.

<NOBR>Mic 5:3</NOBR> Therefore will he give them up, until the time that she which travaileth hath brought forth: then the remnant of his brethren shall return unto the children of Israel.


Now who gave them up?  It is still speaking of God, the Father.  God gave them all up until his 'wife' travailed at Calvary and brought forth the true Children of God.  That woman in travail is Jesus Christ, travailing to bring forth Children of God.

That remnant which returned to the true Israel was the Apostles and that early church.  They became the true Israel of God, of which I am a member.

<NOBR>Mic 5:4</NOBR> And he shall stand and feed in the strength of the LORD, in the majesty of the name of the LORD his God; and they shall abide: for now shall he be great unto the ends of the earth.


Who is it saying shall stand and feed in the strength of the LORD (meaning the Father)?  Is it sensible to say that Jesus stood and fed in the strength of Jesus?  Of coursde not.  Jesus was feeding on the Word of God, the Father.  That was his spiritual FLESH OR MEAT.  ....and

 THEY shall abide:    (what is that?  It is speaking of those who abide in the Vine or the Word of God.   If ye abide in me and my words abide in you.   that is the ones.

For now shall HE be great unto the ends of the earth.  Who?  Jesus, after the crucifixion.

<NOBR>Mic 5:5</NOBR> And this man shall be the peace, when the Assyrian shall come into our land: and when he shall tread in our palaces, then shall we raise against him seven shepherds, and eight principal men.


This Man  (NOT A GOD)  shall be the peace.......who is this MAN?  It is Jesus. 

who is this assyrian?  It is Satan, Adam.  He shall tread in our palaces  =  the NT Church.  Who is the seven shepherds we raise against him?  It is those true leaders of those seven churches.  The eighth one?  The ones who receive the Baptism of Fire to bring the finishing of this  = the wrath or judgment of the Lamb against those who are members of this Assyrian.

Now if you refuse this truth so clearly laid out, in perfect connection with the Words of this Scripture, you will remain in your darkness, for you refuse the Truth of God's revealed Word.

No other explaination could fit every single word of this.  any right thinking person can see that two different ones are spoken of all through this Scripture.


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 Message 12 of 16 in Discussion 
From: MSN Nicknamerollingstone444Sent: 3/12/2007 10:17 PM

Hab 1:12 Art thou not from everlasting, O LORD my God, mine Holy One? we shall not die. O LORD, thou hast ordained them for judgment; and, O mighty God, thou hast established them for correction.

Hi. I found this verse and think it is a good one proving what you are saying here that the one from everlasting is God, the Father.


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 Message 13 of 16 in Discussion 
From: MSN NicknameFreeborn551Sent: 3/13/2007 1:56 PM
That is very good, rollingstone.  I had not even thought of that.  That is the only way to  interpret Scripture correctly.  it must have at least two different places saying the same thing and saying it clearly in two of them.  Unless a verse tells us exactly what the other means, then it is just guess work.
 
Guess work is not permissable when it comes to God's word.
So unless one can find a verse saying that Jesus, the son, was from everylasting, then I say the one you gave interprets it truly as being God, the Father.
 
So does anyone know of a verse which clearly states that the Son of God was from everlasting?  If not, then this one in Hab. 1:12 proves it is speaking of God, the Father.
 
Thanks for this input.
Jo

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 Message 14 of 16 in Discussion 
From: MSN NicknameTweety134Sent: 3/14/2007 3:47 AM
Dear Freeborn,
I will have been reading your response to this. And we can talk about it more. I think you and I will have to get into the Kenosis of Christ to understand more the Divine part that he put aside. But before I go tonight I see you have agreed on some things he has said. Please remember that he is talking about Jesus here. Jesus the man and then Jesus the annointed. I have seen posts on other boards saying that Jesus raised Himself from the dead. I laughed. It was the Holy Ghost that raised Jesus from the dead. Could we talk more about Mic 5:1 & Mic 5:2? Dake says this was Jesus they were talking about. And you said the same thing. I am glad to see that you both agree on that one. But we need to talk about it. Because I don't understand what his notes mean about it.
 
I have not been on as I should have. My friend that worked with me killed himself over the weekend. I wrote about it on my board. They had the grief couselors at work today for us at work. I saw him Friday before I went home and he killed himself that night. He was going through alot. But he did not have to do that. Please pray for his family. Tweety

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Sent: 3/14/2007 1:26 PM
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 Message 16 of 16 in Discussion 
From: MSN NicknameFreeborn551Sent: 3/14/2007 1:30 PM
 
Dear Tweety,
 
I am very sorry to hear this about your worker-friend.  I pray you will receive the comfort and strength you need right now.
 
 
 I do not know of anything I have said here to make you think I have agreed with anything Dakes has said.
 
  Sure we need to talk it over.  I have already proven that Micah was speaking of God, the Father.  Other Scriptures prove it was God, not Jesus, who was from everlasting. 
 
It does speak of the birth of Jesus here,  but it went back to the Father when he said his going forth was from everylasting.  Many times it is hard to discern from the pronouns which person is meant,  especially in Daniel.
 
I teach fully, here and everywhere else,  that Jesus is not God.  Only since God raised Jesus up and gave him all power and authority as God,  since his resurrection, is Jesus our God.
 
There is no difference in Jesus the man, and Jesus the anointed.  God anointed Jesus, the man,  with the Holy Ghost and power.  That is clear enough for even a child to understand.
 
There is no,  get that ....no....divine power that Jesus laid aside.  This is fully man's MADE UP JUNK,  BECAUSE THEY TRIED TO MAKE THE WORD OF GOD FIT THEIR ALREADY DECEIVED THOUGHTS.
 
NO SCRIPTURE SAYS THIS, NO MATTER WHAT DAKES SAID.
 
JO

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