I'm speechless about the RDBL.

Then again, the bidding showed shortness in Hts in the North hand.

  North showed a 5-4 in D/S,  and why would he make an ostensible gametry in Cl with 2-2 in H/C ?

  South has to "correct" to 5S.

 

Nonetheless, 3C is forcing.  Perhaps South should keep the bidding lower with 3H.

Afterall, eventho South does not have a bunch of hcp ( South did not go thru 2C! 4th suit GF before supporting Sp ) , those 2 bullets are golden if North has slam intentions:

 

  North                South
    1D                    1H

    1S                     2S

    3C                     3H

    3S                     4C

    4D                    4NT

    5C ( 0 or 3 )      5D ( sQ-ask )

  5NT ( yes, but NO outside K)

                              5S   ... end

- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -

    The following South hand ( 8 hcp) could make 12 tricks only if opps' fail to lead trumps ( unlikely)...  3A, 1K, 8 cross-ruffs:

 

     J T 9 7

     A x x x x x

     K x

     x

     

What I'm really curious about is the redbl, forget the rest of the auction.

 

If you are in a slam cue bidding sequence and then out of the blue an opp bids 4s for example, then many play dbl shows first round control  (or pass shows first round control) or whatever, they have a conventional agreement so that the suit bid becomes  helpful . 

 

This hand only becomes ambiguous because Maggie has real hearts.

 

Does it make sense if someone cuebids and it gets dbled that redbl would show 1st round control.  On the one hand the cuebidder just showed 1st  round control so redbl should have some other meaning (maybe 2nd round control)

 

Since partner has already shown the heart ace why is showing the heart void going to help?  Why do both of you need first round control?  At the point of the double I would be happy that she probably doesn't have a lot of wasted points in hearts and just bid 5S.

I  don't know what the answer is, but the redl of a dbled cuebid  must mean something..  In our auction for example Maggie raised spds at her second turn, for all I know she may only have 4 hearts.  But you are right if she just showed 1st round heart control why do I want to show 1st round  heart control.  

 

I'll guess the answer should be redbl shows 2nd round heart contol, 5S says I didn't likr that dbl and I'm ready to quit, and pass says. I'm still interested but it will be more helpful if pard makes the next cue (or signd off) rather than If I do.

Thx for not mentioning my senility  re post 2.

    [ I stopped in 5S over 5NT .... duh ].

Barton,

 

Completely NOT your fault. Trumps were agreed to at 2S. Once 3C hits the table it is mathematically IMPOSSIBLE for you to have heart fit. Think about it - you've shown  by implication 4 diamonds, 4 spades, at likely 3-4 clubs. Where's the heart fit?

It's not a who's at fault question, it's a "what does redbl mean" question.  If I have even stiff king of hearts then we very  well could make 5H**, which  if my arithmetic is right outscores 6S

Redouble - absolute first round control, making a mild slam try (for me, 5NT is the BIG slam try in this sequence).

I think it should show 2nd round control since pard just showed 1st round control

I agree the slam try was overly agressive even after exceptance of the fake 3c game try.  Still not getting answers on what the redbl should mean?

Sp have been set as trump.

Pard has shown the Ht Ace ( surely not a mixed-cue when first introduced at the 5-level).

Thus, the RDBL should show at least 2nd Rnd Ctrl, which would be a stiff..... or possible void.   I lower, but finite, probability would be a stiff K or K x .