Thanks for your reply

 

This seems inconsistent with 1d-1s-2nt = 18-19

seems like following your guidelines it would be 1d-1s-3nt = 18-19

 

why is one hand with 18-19 worth only 2nt and another hand with 18-19 worth 3nt?

 

 

 

 

I don't agree PK, since with 15-17 my question would be why didn't the person open 1N to begin with?  I could find a reason for not opening 1N if it went 1M - 1N - 2N with 16-17, but not when the opening suit is a minor.

after opening a minor,if opener then bids 2nt after partner bid 1nt IMO opener was to strong if a disciplined player to open 1NT 15-17 or not strong enough for a opening of 2nt 20-21,so the 2nt should show 18/19 hcp........

I agree with you, spade, and I don't know why I see so many auctions on BC go 1d-1nt-3nt and dummy comes down with 17-18 points.   It is just bad bridge, even if it works occasionally.

 

1d-1s-2n = 18-19. 1d-1s-3n = Solid 7-card minor with outside ace or king or two.

 

1d 1s 2N is a completely different auction than 1d 1N 2N. In the first case responder's bid is unlimited and forcing. In the second case responder's bid is limited and nonforcing.

 

In the first case you have a NT hand and fit it between the opening 1N 15-17 and opening 2N 20-21. Since responder is unlimited, you must "show points." In the second case, you may not have a good NT hand, but responder is offering a NT contract. If you agree to NT, your only consideration is how high. Since the 1N response limited responder's hand, opener has no need to "show points." You just do the math to decide the level.

 

If opener has 15 and responder has a max of 9, there is no game.Why would opener want to play in 2N instead of 1N?

 

If opener has 19 and responder has 6, there is game. Why would opener not want to play in 3N?

 

1N-2N always asks the same question regardless of the bidding that got you there. This is true for 1N-2N, 1D-1N-2N, and 1D-1S-1N-2N. "If you are max, bid 3N. If you are min, pass."

 

IMPORTANT BASIC RULE: Once a bidder makes a limiting bid, the other partner becomes the captain. ALL NT bids in the first two rounds are limiting. Whoever bids NT first, their partner is now the captain and chooses the final contract. Except in some slam bidding auctions, the NT bidder may only answer questions and may not take any unilateral action.

So, I am still confused (thick skull).

 

Why is bidding 3nt over a 1nt response with 18 points correct?  Do you always assume partner has the max?    Because this is the bidding I am griping about.

18 is on the bubble. 18+6=only 24, but 18+7=25. Responder will pass with 7. If you want to be safer, bid 2N with 18 and 3N with 19+.

 

Personally, I would rather play some 24-pt 3N contracts than play 2N with 25. I consider 25 HCP the 3N total, rather than Goren's 26 HCP.

It now even explains how to get off of this mailing list.  Supposedly there is a link that you can click on that will remove you from the list.  Please do so, nor.

When I learned a little bridge 26HCP's needed for 3nt unless you had reason to believe a 5 card or longer suit was useful. Also when I'm dealt 18-19 HCP's nt-ish, I plan on rebidding 2nt over pd's 1 level response. I can't know if pd will respond 1s or 1 nt. But my rebid will show 18-19 balanced. Pd can pass with bad 1s or bad 1nt response.