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| | From: joie (Original Message) | Sent: 7/22/2002 3:23 PM |
Reading 11Cor. 3:6-17~~~~~~~~ In verses 13 - 15 we find that Moses put a 'veil' over his face that the children of Israel could not stedfastly look to the end of that which is abolished~~~~ v15----But even unto this day, when Moses is read, the veil is upon their heart. Now, the question is this: What is that 'veil'? And another questin is this: How does one read MOSES? | | |
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| | From: joie | Sent: 7/24/2002 2:07 AM |
So, who can answer this question? What is the 'veil'? 11Cor. 3:14--- (this is where the answer is)~~ But their MINDS WERE BLINDED: for until this day remaineth the same VEIL untaken away in the reading of the old testament; which VEIL is done away in Christ. Proof: Ephe. 1:12-18---(speaking of trusting in Jesus Christ) *** v17--That the God of our Lord Jesus Christ, the Father of glory, may give unto you the spirit of wisdom and revelation in the KNOWLEDGE OF him: v18~~~~The eyes of your UNDERSTANDING being ENLIGHTENED; that ye may KNOW what is the hope of his calling, and what the riches of the glory of his inheritance in the saints. Now just look at 11Cor. 3: 14~ ...their minds were BLINDED = darkened. The lights or lamp went out. See? That old testament law BLINDED ~~ OR DARKENED their MINDS. This is the VEIL which was cast over them. They had no UNDERSTANDING OF Christ. See, that it said WHEN they turn to Christ the VEIL would be taken away. So what is that? Paul said in Eph. that is their MINDS being ENLIGHTENED = come to understand truth or Christ. Grace and TRUTH came by Jesus Christ. Blindness came by the LAW. There you have it. The veil was the BLINDED MIND. That is the Word of God ; not joie's word. | | |
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| | From: joie | Sent: 7/24/2002 2:24 AM |
| | Now to answer the other question ~~~ How does one 'READ' MOSES? Go to 11Cor. 3: 15-----But even unto this day, when Moses is read, the veil is upon their heart. v14---But their minds were blinded; for until this day remaineth the same veil UNTAKEN AWAY (see, it is still there)--- in the reading of the OLD TESTAMENT; which veil (blindness) is done away in Christ. Now, don't you see that it said when they 'read' Moses, they are still blind ?~~~~~ then it said the veil, or blindness is STILL on their hearts when they read the old testament? ~~~ Then it could only mean one thing: to read the old testament, or the law covenant, is to read MOSES. So, Moses means the old covenant. Moses is the LAW. So, if turning to Jesus takes away the veil, it could only mean that Jesus is totally different from the old testament. For, if reading the O.T. leaves them blind; and turning to Christ gives them light, then Jesus is certainly NOT the old testament. Christ is LIFE. Give me Jesus. joie | | |
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| | From: Dawn | Sent: 7/24/2002 10:51 PM |
This is a very interesting study. I was just reading in Acts and saw this: it seems to be showing the same thing. Acts 13:38-Be it known unto you therefore, men and brethren, that through this man is preached unto you the forgiveness of sins: v39-And by him all that believe are justified from all things, from which ye could not be justified by the law of Moses. Now, this is saying that we can be justified through faith in Jesus, from all sins. But it said we could NOT be justified from these sins by the law of Moses. So if one could not be justified from sins by that law, why would one need that law today? Dawn |
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from John there are more Doctrins about The VAIL. CHOSEN, LAW and Trinity. and why??? because we have so little Disernment in the Word of God. and if is in the Lord's Will, I will go in to it at some later date. |
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I was just thinking as I read this ------- it said when one turns to Christ, the 'veil' or blindness of mind is taken away; then it must show that after one comes to Christ, then they can 'read' the words of the Old Testament without the veil or blindness being there, right? Then if this is true, it must mean that 'reading' Moses or law, asctualy means getting the thoughts that were back there and not understanding those words for our day. I hope I am making what I see clear; it is hard to explain. But what I am trying to say is this; if one 'reads' words, it is not what is being spoken of. But it is speaking of how one takes those words into their mind; in other words, how they understand it. So if I am in Christ, I can 'read' those same words, but they will not be telling me what they tell another person, who is thinking they are still bound by those words. wow. I see but I can't tell it as i see it. It is not the 'reading' as you are reading these words; not just knowing that t.w.o. spells two; it is what you read or understand the meaning to be. starlight |
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| | From: joie | Sent: 3/20/2003 1:43 AM |
This is a simple little discussion on the much needed subject of law. So I will send it back to be read again. |
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