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God and Jesus : Proof that Jesus was man, not God
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 Message 1 of 8 in Discussion 
From: MSN NicknameFreeborn551  (Original Message)Sent: 5/26/2008 2:18 AM

~~ Proof that Jesus was a man, not God ~~

I will give some verses, spoken by Jesus, which prove, without a doubt, that Jesus had a man’s mind or spirit. He was a full human man, body, soul, and spirit. He could never have spoken any of these words, if his inner spirit had been that of the eternal God.

Jesus speaks all of these words from his own mind or spirit. He never at any time claims to be God. Those claiming that Jesus was only a ‘body�?for God to dwell in, should take some time and honestly study these passages. Nothing could be further from the truth.

I will add more to this later.

John 3:34 For he whom God hath sent speaketh the words of God: for God giveth not the Spirit by measure unto him.

Joh 4:34 Jesus saith unto them, My meat is to do the will of him that sent me, and to finish his work.

John 5:19 Then answered Jesus and said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, The Son can do nothing of himself, but what he seeth the Father do: for what things soever he doeth, these also doeth the Son likewise.

Joh 5:20 For the Father loveth the Son, and showeth him all things that himself doeth: and he will show him greater works than these, that ye may marvel.

Joh 5:26 For as the Father hath life in himself; so hath he given to the Son to have life in himself;

Joh 5:27 And hath given him authority to execute judgment also, because he is the Son of man.

Joh 5:30 I can of mine own self do nothing: as I hear, I judge: and my judgment is just; because I seek not mine own will, but the will of the Father which hath sent me.

Joh 5:31 If I bear witness of myself, my witness is not true.

Joh 5:32 There is another that beareth witness of me; and I know that the witness which he witnesseth of me is true.

Joh 5:36 But I have greater witness than that of John: for the works which the Father hath given me to finish, the same works that I do, bear witness of me, that the Father hath sent me.

Joh 5:37 And the Father himself, which hath sent me, hath borne witness of me. Ye have neither heard his voice at any time, nor seen his shape.

Joh 5:38 And ye have not his word abiding in you: for whom he hath sent, him ye believe not



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 Message 2 of 8 in Discussion 
From: MSN NicknameFreeborn551Sent: 5/26/2008 3:13 AM
More on this:
 

John 6:52 The Jews therefore strove among themselves, saying, How can this man give us his flesh to eat? (see that these Jews did NOT know the truth which Jesus told them.  They had no spiritual understanding.)

Joh 6:53 Then Jesus said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, Except ye eat the flesh of the Son of man, and drink his blood, ye have no life in you.

Joh 6:54 Whoso eateth my flesh, and drinketh my blood, hath eternal life; and I will raise him up at the last day.

John 6:55 For my flesh is meat indeed, and my blood is drink indeed.

Joh 6:56 He that eateth my flesh, and drinketh my blood, dwelleth in me, and I in him.

Joh 6:57 As the living Father hath sent me, and I live by the Father: so he that eateth me, even he shall live by me.

there is no way to litterally eat Jesus' human body or drink his blood. God forbids the drinking of blood.  so it is spiritual.

He is saying we must eat of the Word, which is his flesh.  It is the spiritual food that he gives us to eat of the tree of life.

He said we would live by him, in the same way he lives by the Father.  Look at verse 56.  If we eat his flesh and drink his blood, we DWELL in him and he in us........same words as the Father dwells in him.

 

So how do we get into him?  How do we dwell inside him?  and He in us?  does that make us him and he us?  think on this.  It is the same words which make you think He is the Father.


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 Message 3 of 8 in Discussion 
From: MSN NicknameFreeborn551Sent: 6/1/2008 1:53 PM
Some thoughts, taken from the Jesus-only board:
 

Heb. 9:24 says that Christ entered into heaven, now to appear in the presence of God for us.

Now do you believe that Jesus is God? If so, how is it that he went to appear INTO THE PRESENCE OF GOD?

If he is God, how is he in the presence of himself? Why would he have to enter into heaven to appear in the presence of God? Was He in His own presence on earth? Is it correct to say one enters into the presence of his own self? [I think not.]

Anyone here have an answer?

Now if Jesus had been God, then it would not be correct to say God was in him. Sure God was in him, but he is also in me.

God said, Let US make man in OUR image and after OUR likeness, didn't he?

Now is not the word US plural? Is not the word OUR plural? sure it is. So is there only 1 being involved in the kingdom of God?

If so, who was God speaking to? Who was Jesus calling, MY GOD?

That verse tells us that there is ONE God, and that there is one MEDIATOR BETWEEN God and men, and that mediator is the man, (get that, still a MAN in heaven)..Christ Jesus.

Sure, God was manifest in flesh. But that flesh is NOT the human body of Jesus Christ. It was the WORDS HE TAUGHT US AND THEY DID THE WORKS OF GOD. (flesh means something to EAT.)

So did the words of Peter and Paul, after Pentecost. They also manifested God in flesh.

Why do the millions of 'christian' folks cleave to these lies of Satan and reject the Truth of God?

Jesus did not receive the Spirit of God, the Holy Ghost, UNTIL HE WAS 30 YEARS OLD, WHEN JOHN BAPTIZED HIM.

If he had the Holy Ghost in him, at age 20, 10, and birth, why did he receive it at age 30? How many did he receive?

1Tim 2:5 For there is one God, and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus;

If the explanatory phrase, 'the man Christ Jesus' had followed, 'there is one God', then yes, you would have been right.

But see, it does NOT follow that phrase. It followers the phrase, 'and one mediator'. So the explanatory phrase is an adjective phrase, explaining, 'the one mediator'.

It is not explaining the phrase, 'one God'. If it were, it would have had to follow that phrase. But since it followers the phrase, 'and one mediator between God and men', then it has to be explaining the mediator, not the God.

Now this is the pure truth and it is the only explanation which fits all other Scripture. It does not fit any of man's teachings, because they are teaching lies. It is also the only explanation which fits correct English grammar.

One God AND one mediator, equals two different entities being spoken of here. There is no other way to discern this sentence without destroying the true meaning.

 

 


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 Message 4 of 8 in Discussion 
From: MSN NicknameFreeborn551Sent: 6/1/2008 1:59 PM
...some more....keep studying....try to come to the truth.
 

Mt 1:1

The book of the generation of Jesus Christ, the son of David, the son of Abraham.

************************************************

Is God the son of David? Is Abraham the father of God? Is Mary the Mother of God?

How many of you can truthfully, and with Scripture, answer these questions? Do you know the answers? If so, please explain why the Word says God is without Father or Mother, without beginning of days or ending of days.

Is Jesus truly God? If so, how then is he the son of David and Abraham?

Isa 42:1

Behold my servant, whom I uphold; mine elect, in whom my soul delighteth; I have put my spirit upon him: he shall bring forth judgment to the Gentiles.

 

Now, please tell us, WHO is this SERVANT here? Who is speaking in this Scripture? Who is saying I have or had a SERVANT in whom I delight in and He is the one to bring forth judgment to the Gentiles? Did anyone other than Jesus bring judgment to the Gentiles? If so, who was it?

Who is this SERVANT? [any of you know?]

Who was he the servant to? And If He were the servant of God [Jesus] how then is he also God? How then is he a second person, equal with two other persons? If they are equal, how is he their SERVANT?

I see no way this verse matches a Jesus-only or a trinity doctrine. Can any of you who believe these two man-made doctrines, explain this verse in Isa. 42?

Now the Word does not teach that Jesus did his miracles by being God. No. It teaches that He did them by faith in God. when He prayed about raising Lazarus did not Jesus say God hears me? So, is his own spirit hearing him? Who was His Father?

Jesus told his disciples that they could do the very same things He did and more. Does this make them be God also? After all, God anointed Jesus with the Holy Ghost, did He not?

Ac 10:38

How God anointed Jesus of Nazareth with the Holy Ghost and with power: who went about doing good, and healing all that were oppressed of the devil; for God was with him.

 

Now that is Peter's own words above. [If Jesus were God, why is this saying God was WITH Him?]

So If Jesus were actually God, how is it that God had to anoint Jesus with the Holy ghost? Did not the Holy Ghost come down upon Jesus at His Baptism? Of course it did. So then, are you assuming that God [Jesus] did not have the Holy ghost until John baptized God? My.

So, You believe that Jesus was fully God [spirit] and also fully man? Now where does the Word of God teach this? Give me a verse saying this.

Did not Jesus tell his disciples after his resurrection "feel me and handle me and see that a Spirit has NOT FLESH AND BONE AS YOU SEE ME HAVE'?

See, Jesus told them he is still NOT A SPIRIT, even after he was glorified.


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 Message 5 of 8 in Discussion 
From: MSN NicknameFreeborn551Sent: 6/1/2008 2:04 PM

Mt 16:16

And Simon Peter answered and said, Thou art the Christ, the Son of the living God.

 

Now, why did not Peter say I believe that you are God? or part God? or fully God and fully man? Why did not Peter say this? Why did Jesus verify that Peter had the true foundation?

Do you truly want truth, or man's doctrine? Remember, to go by man's doctrines is to cause your worship of God to be totally in vain.

Moses called him a prophet like unto me..........where did Moses say God is coming to earth as man?

Are you standing on solid ground? Think it over. Search the SCRIPTURES. [not some churches doctrine].

1John

4:9

In this was manifested the love of God toward us, because that God sent his only begotten Son into the world, that we might live through him.

1jo 4:10#

Herein is love, not that we loved God, but that he loved us, and sent his Son to be the propitiation for our sins.

1jo 4:11#

Beloved, if God so loved us, we ought also to love one another.

1jo 4:12#

No man hath seen God at any time. If we love one another, God dwelleth in us, and his love is perfected in us.

1jo 4:13

Hereby know we that we dwell in him, and he in us, because he hath given us of his Spirit.

1jo 4:14#

And we have seen and do testify that the Father sent the Son to be the Saviour of the world.

1jo 4:15#

Whosoever shall confess that Jesus is the Son of God, God dwelleth in him, and he in God.

 

1jo 5:5

Who is he that overcometh the world, but he that believeth that Jesus is the Son of God?

 

1jo 5:10#

He that believeth on the Son of God hath the witness in himself: he that believeth not God hath made him a liar; because he believeth not the record that God gave of his Son.

 

Do you believe the record God gave of HIS SON? Or are you calling God a lie? God did not say the record he gave of himself, now did He? Do you believe John?

He said we overcome the world by believing that Jesus is the Son of God, not by believing that Jesus is God.

Do you think maybe these writers got it a little mixed up? After all, the Pentecostals of today read something entirely different from what all these writers said.

John said God SENT HIS SON. HE DID NOT SAY GOD CAME TO EARTH HIMSELF.

Do you think maybe John got it all mixed up?

John said no man has seen God AT ANY TIME.

Didn't Peter see Jesus? Do you believe John?

John said we must confess that Jesus is the son of God. now why didn't he say confess that Jesus is God?........think it over.

 


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 Message 6 of 8 in Discussion 
From: MSN NicknameFreeborn551Sent: 6/1/2008 2:19 PM

1st Tim.3:16,Without controversy great is the mystery of godliness: God was manifest in the flesh, justified in the Spirit, seen of angels, preached unto the Gentiles, believed on in the world, received up into glory

Ok, Let’s explore this verse.

When you say, Jesus Christ was God manifest in flesh, you are changing the word and adding to it. This is forbidden by God.

He became incarnate in man......is devil teaching.....it is not in the Word of God.......so it is also ADDED. look up that word, INCARNATE........it is not one time found in the Word of God.....so somebody added this lie to His word. Now, do you believe Jesus? Do you believe Jesus knew what he was speaking of?

If so, would you think that you must eat some of his human body, in order to have eternal life? Now Jesus told us in John six:

John 6:46#

Not that any man hath seen the Father, save he which is of God, he hath seen the Father.

Joh 6:47

Verily, verily, I say unto you, He that believeth on me hath everlasting life.

Joh 6:48

I am that bread of life.

Joh 6:49

Your fathers did eat manna in the wilderness, and are dead.

Joh 6:50

This is the bread which cometh down from heaven, that a man may eat thereof, and not die.

Joh 6:51

I am the living bread which came down from heaven: if any man eat of this bread, he shall live for ever: and the bread that I will give is my flesh, which I will give for the life of the world.

Joh 6:52

The Jews therefore strove among themselves, saying, How can this man give us his flesh to eat?

Joh 6:53#

Then Jesus said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, Except ye eat the flesh of the Son of man, and drink his blood, ye have no life in you. [if you see this as his natural body, then you must drink some of his actual blood.] (think this is what He meant?)

Joh 6:54

Whoso eateth my flesh, and drinketh my blood, hath eternal life; and I will raise him up at the last day.

Joh 6:55

For my flesh is meat indeed, and my blood is drink indeed.

Joh 6:56#

He that eateth my flesh, and drinketh my blood, dwelleth in me, and I in him. [have you eaten his flesh? did you drink his blood?]

Joh 6:57

As the living Father hath sent me, and I live by the Father: so he that eateth me, even he shall live by me. [this is the WORD talking] it is not Jesus. If so, then you must EAT JESUS.

Joh 6:58

This is that bread which came down from heaven: not as your fathers did eat manna, and are dead: he that eateth of this bread shall live for ever.

Joh 6:59#

These things said he in the synagogue, as he taught in Capernaum.

Many therefore of his disciples, when they had heard this, said, This is an hard saying; who can hear it?

Joh 6:61

When Jesus knew in himself that his disciples murmured at it, he said unto them, Doth this offend you?

Joh 6:62

What and if ye shall see the Son of man ascend up where he was before?

Joh 6:63

It is the spirit that quickeneth; the flesh profiteth nothing: the words that I speak unto you, they are spirit, and they are life.

Joh 6:64#

But there are some of you that believe not. For Jesus knew from the beginning who they were that believed not, and who should betray him.

Joh 6:65

And he said, Therefore said I unto you, that no man can come unto me, except it were given unto him of my Father.

Joh 6:66

From that time many of his disciples went back, and walked no more with him.

Joh 6:67#

Then said Jesus unto the twelve, Will ye also go away?

Joh 6:68#

Then Simon Peter answered him, Lord, to whom shall we go? thou hast the words of eternal life.

 

Joh 6:63

It is the spirit that quickeneth; the flesh profiteth nothing: the WORDS THAT I SPEAK unto you, they are spirit, and they are life.

 

Remember that the human body [flesh] of Jesus DIED. Therefore this human flesh COULD NOT HAVE BEEN THE MANIFESTATION OF THE ETERNAL GOD.

God cannot die. So how could the death of this man be manifesting God?

Scripture must interpret Scripture. Remember, if your belief crosses any Scripture, it is wrong. All Scripture must come together and agree, else there are lies in it. Agree?

Now look at the above verse........the flesh profits NOTHING. So if his human flesh is the flesh which was manifesting God, how then can it be profiting NOTHING?

See, he said the W O R D S --that I speak.....the WORDS I speak...are SPIRIT....and THEY [MY WORDS] ARE LIFE.

My flesh which I will give for the LIFE of the world, is my WORDS. My human flesh, body, profits NOTHING. It died and went into hell fire. This was manifesting GOD? No, No, No.

God was NOT manifest in Jesus' human body or flesh. The WORDS which the FATHER gave to Jesus to speak to us, this is the FLESH which we must eat.

ARE YOU GOING TO EAT JESUS? His arms? His legs? what part of his human FLESH are you going to eat in order to have eternal life?

God was manifest in the FLESH, which we must EAT to have eternal life == the WORD OF GOD..........the WORDS I speak are not mine,,,, so said JESUS......they are NOT mine. They are the FATHER'S who sent me.

These words are life.........these words are spirit.....God is a SPIRIT. Jesus is NOT a spirit.

Are you denying the FATHER? To do so is ANTI-CHRIST. Are you saying Jesus is his own Father? If so, tell me what verse says this.....which apostle taught this....where did Jesus say I am my own Father? Did Jesus tell us truth or not?

Just because men of the past misunderstood the above verse you gave us, does not make it true. The church which teaches this is FALSE. The apostles did NOT teach that Jesus is God. They did not teach that God was manifest in human flesh.

The WORDS are what came down from heaven. The WORDS are what gives us LIFE. Jesus was the only begotten Son of God at his RESURRECTION. Rom. 1:4.

Jo


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 Message 7 of 8 in Discussion 
From: MSN NicknameFreeborn551Sent: 6/1/2008 2:25 PM
Now, I will answer you who question Isa. 9:6>>.
 

Now let’s look at Matt. 1: 18. Now the birth of Jesus Christ was on this wise: When as his mother Mary was espoused to Joseph, before they came together, she was found with child of the Holy Ghost.

19. Then Joseph her husband, being a just man, and not willing to make her a publick example, was minded to put her away privily.

20. But while he thought on these things, behold, the angel of the Lord appeared unto him in a dream, saying, Joseph, thou son of David, fear not to take unto thee Mary thy wife: for that which is conceived in her is of the Holy Ghost.

21. And she shall bring forth a son, and thou shalt call his name JESUS: for he shall save his people from their sins.

22. Now all this was done, that it might be fulfilled which was spoken of the Lord by the prophet, saying,

23. Behold, a virgin shall be with child, and shall bring forth a son, and they shall call his name Emmanuel, which being interpreted is, God with us.

24. Then Joseph being raised from sleep did as the angel of the Lord had bidden him, and took unto him his wife:

25. And knew her not till she had brought forth her firstborn son: and he called his name JESUS.

Verse 18--Mary was found with child of the Holy Ghost before she and Joseph came together. So this proves the Holy Ghost is responsible for Jesus being in Mary’s womb; not Joseph.

v20 also says this, that which is conceived in her is of the Holy Ghost.

V21--She shall bring forth a son, and thou shalt call his name JESUS: for he shall save his people from their sins.

Now this does NOT say this child or this name is Emmanuel; nor does it say this child is God with us.

Notice it is finished speaking now of Mary birthing her son, Jesus. This child, even though he was placed in her womb by the working of the Holy Ghost, he is still a full human being, having come from the seed of Abraham and David through Mary and this working of the Holy Ghost. The Spirit did not place into this conception the nature of God. He did not place the Holy Ghost into this child here. He only quickened her seed and made life come from it. This life was not God. It was a man.

Now here is the secret. Read verse 22 carefully. 22. Now all this was done, that it might be fulfilled which was spoken of the Lord by the prophet, saying,

All what? All of the above from verse 18 down through verse 21. All of that was done, Mary conceiving a child and then giving birth to a human child for a purpose. What was that purpose?

 


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 Message 8 of 8 in Discussion 
From: MSN NicknameFreeborn551Sent: 6/1/2008 2:34 PM

All of this was done (her conception and giving birth to Jesus)--

v23--23. Behold, a virgin shall be with child, and shall bring forth a son, and they shall call his name Emmanuel, which being interpreted is, God with us.

All of that was done so it could be fulfilled about the virgin bringing forth a son and calling his name Emmanuel, God with us.

Now was God with us in the baby Jesus? Of course not. Jesus was not a God. Jesus was a human being; born of human flesh. Sure the quickening was done by the Holy Ghost; but that did not make Jesus be a God. He did not quicken God in Mary; he quickened Humanity in Mary.

With Jesus being the head of this earth’s kingdom, He is part of the female to God. He is the wife of God. He is the one who bore the children of God for God. We are his children. He is our Mother.

Jesus is the woman in travail in Rev. 12. Yes, Jesus was in travail at Calvary. He went through this to give us life, To bear children to God.

The woman being with child, means God had put a SEED in her. This seed is to bring forth a Son of God in the likeness and glory of God. The Seed is His Word.

We are now with child the same way. We have the Seed of God in us, working to bring us forth at the resurrection in the likeness and glory of God, our Father. This is done by Jesus our Mother.

Jesus, being a human being same as us, had a SEED of God placed inside him. This seed was the Word of God. The WORD was in Jesus. It was working in Jesus to bring forth a Son of God at his resurrection, in the likeness and glory of God, his Father.

So then, JESUS WAS THAT VIRGIN WITH CHILD. JESUS IS THAT VIRGIN UNTO GOD, DOING ALWAYS THE THINGS WHICH PLEASED GOD, JESUS IS THAT VIRGIN WHO WAS SPOKEN OF IN ISAIAH 7, WHO WOULD BRING FORTH A VIRGIN BORN SON OF GOD.

That Seed of God was placed into his womb (= his soul), and worked there all the days of his life to bring him forth into the likeness and glory of God. At his resurrection, it was said, this is the day I have begotten this Son of God.

This is the day that prophecy in Psm. 2 was fulfilled. So back to Matt. Read down through v22--this Mary bringing forth HER SON, JESUS, was done in order that the prophecy of Isa. 7, (a virgin shall be with child and bring forth a son) could be fulfilled.

If Jesus had not been born of Mary the way he was, then that virgin (Jesus) could not have also fulfilled His part of bringing forth a Son of God by the Seed Word of God which had been inside him. He never sinned; he did always the things which pleased God, therefore He came forth the very FIRST BEGOTTEN SON OF GOD IN GOD’S IMAGE.

Hebs. 2: 9. But we see Jesus, who was made a little lower than the angels for the suffering of death, crowned with glory and honour; that he by the grace of God should taste death for every man.

10. For it became him, for whom are all things, and by whom are all things, in bringing many sons unto glory, to make the captain of their salvation perfect through sufferings.

11. For both he that sanctifieth and they who are sanctified are all of one: for which cause he is not ashamed to call them brethren,

12. Saying, I will declare thy name unto my brethren, in the midst of the church will I sing praise unto thee.

13. And again, I will put my trust in him. And again, Behold I and the children which God hath given me.

14. Forasmuch then as the children are partakers of flesh and blood, he also himself likewise took part of the same; that through death he might destroy him that had the power of death, that is, the devil;

15. And deliver them who through fear of death were all their lifetime subject to bondage.

16. For verily he took not on him the nature of angels; but he took on him the seed of Abraham.

17. Wherefore in all things it behoved him to be made like unto his brethren, that he might be a merciful and faithful high priest in things pertaining to God, to make reconciliation for the sins of the people.

18. For in that he himself hath suffered being tempted, he is able to succour them that are tempted.

In conclusion >>>>> JESUS WAS THE VIRGIN WHO BORE THE MANCHILD, THE EMMANUEL.

That manchild, Emmanuel, is the RESURRECTED CHRIST.

This Christ is the only begotten Son of God. It was NOT that baby born to Mary. It was that man Jesus, perfected and brought forth at his resurrection in the likeness and glory of the Eternal God.

Jesus lived a perfect, sinless life, NOT because he was GOD, but because he kept his human self under subjection to God. You do great discredit to Jesus to claim that the reason he did not sin is because he was God! This is just not true.

Jesus was tempted in all points like us, made like unto us, made in the likeness of sinful man, with man's desires, YET WITHOUT SIN. God cannot be tempted.

Jesus, therefore, was that VIRGIN to God. It does not mean a natural woman. It is NOT speaking of fleshly virginity. (If you think only a woman can be called a virgin to God, what about the 144,000 in Revelation? Do you think that is all women?)

Grow up into true SPIRITUALITY. Pray for a spiritual mind to understand the spiritual Word of God as spiritual.


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