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The Stuarts : The Stuart Succession
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 Message 1 of 2 in Discussion 
From: Greensleeves  (Original Message)Sent: 12/6/2007 9:01 AM
It's been hypothesized a great deal that Henry VIII was grooming Fitzroy to be his heir, & may have legitimicized him eventually had the boy not grown fatally ill.  I can think of bastards who've been crowned king (William the Conqueror leaps to mind; Isabella's half-brother Henry of Trastamara is another), but I can't think of any who took the throne with daddy's prior approval.
 
I'm amazed Charles II did not name Monmouth (or any of his legion of bastard boys, really) as his heir, knowing the anathema the English people had for Catholics in general & his brother James in particular.  I think that would have been a moment in time where the populace would have thrown their caps in the air & cheered over it. 
 
Charles also stubbornly refused (unlike Henry) to divorce Catherine of Braganza for her inability to present him with a living child, which might also have been a popular move with the people, considering everyone knew of "Old Rowley's" prolificy outside the marriage bed.
 
What reason could Charles have had for making these two choices, especially when he had to know what his brother's reception as king would be?  Opinions?
 
 


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 Message 2 of 2 in Discussion 
From: MSN NicknameMarkGB5Sent: 12/6/2007 10:05 AM
Charles II had a great respect for the laws of succession, after what happened to his father and the demise of the Stuarts altogether in 1649 he was not one to start mixing it up again. Also Charles was a closet Catholic (he converted on his deathbed) so he had a great sympathy for his brother and his rights. Charles had blocked several attempts by Parliament to pass an Exclusion Bill barring James from the throne 1679-81.