There are doctrines of demons going around that are not out of the bible or in the law of God.

 

First of all, it does not matter whether you use the KJV, the Greek, the Hebrew, Aramaic or Latin;  the putting away is not divorcement in the bible. 

 

Second, there is no such thing as sanctified marriages being such because of state approval or the approval of the Roman Catholic Church.

 

If one is married, one is married.  One can be in a sanctified marriage or an unsanctified one. 

 

Thirdly, there is no such doctrine in the bible where a marriage is sanctified by the world's approval or by only approving that a man can only have one wife in his lifetime, unless his present wife is dead.  That whole concept reeks of pure Roman Catholicism.  Many horrendous doctrines have been created that mock the law of God on this issue.

 

After the War Between the States, marriage licenses were given to make sure that the government approved of which group could many another group.  There were restrictions on interracial marriage.  The bible puts no such restrictions on those things. 

 

 

Since when does man's law have priority over the law of God which came through Moses and was propagated and extended into the New Testament by Paul and Jesus?  When did the law on divorcement and marrying again change in the bible?  When was it done away with?  Was there a new law implemented?  Does I Tim. 3:2 say that a man can have "only" one wife?  Or is this an addition to God's Word(the word "only"), since "mia"(wife) can mean "a, one," or "first"(I Tim. 3:2)?

 

Moses brought the law of God on the subject of adultery and he had a Midianite wife and a Cushite wife.  There is not much dispute on this in God's law and history.  Also, David was given his wives by God Himself.  Did God promote adultery?

 

Please be courteous and use your Greek and Hebrew before frivolously posting an opinion without scriptural backing.

 

Yesterday, there was a big issue because a coach who was forty was given permission to marry a woman who was sixteen by her parents.  The news spoke of this man like he was a pedophile(obviously they don't know the difference between ephebophilia and pedophilia).  Most scholars believe that Mary was thirteen and Joseph was over forty.  Who is the worst pedophile under man's law?

 

So the question arises, when conflict comes between the law of God and man's law, which one are we to obey?  Could it be possible that this is why the Muslims outnumber the Christians?  I do not promote, nor condemn polygyny because neither does the bible.  I don't understand why most people would want even one wife generally in today's society unless God is in it.

 

I will only address viewpoints backed by scripture using Greek and Hebrew and the original definitions in the bible and not words that have been redefined to implement Rome-antic concepts.  The Roman's Road is the wrong road.

 

Thanks for listening.

Fred