Is it Biblical?
Yes
Long ago I read a scripture in the New Testament that slightly annoyed me. Allow me to share it with you: It is reported commonly that there is fornication among you, and such fornication as is not so much as named among the Gentiles, that one should have his father's wife. 1 Corinthians 5:1
I must confess that upon my first memory of reading this particular scripture I did not think much about it because I assumed that I fully understood it. Over time I began to feel as though I was missing something each time I read this verse but I kept dismissing that nagging feeling. Many years later the Lord suffered me to understand this scripture in it's fullness. There is a reason the Authorized King James Bible had to translate it precisely this way. It could not read: "... that one should have his mother" because it simply was not written in the Greek to read that way. That is why the scripture does not say that the wicked son committed fornication with his mother. Perhaps NEW AGE BIBLES might try to tell you otherwise. Don't be deceived. The words "father's wife" in this literal construct refer precisely to the father's spouse and not to the mother of the suggested progeny. Notice that this scripture addresses a form of fornication not even so much as named among the Gentiles. The sin committed in 1Corinthians 5 was forbidden in the book of Deuteronomy, Chapter 22 verse 30: A man shall not take his father's wife, nor discover his father's skirt. Again: Why was it not merely stated that a man shall not lay with his mother? Well, the answer is simply because the father could very likely have had several brides. A more thorough study of Hebrew culture and customs of the Jews during the time of Christ reveals that many of the marital traditions were still kept even after the captivity of Israel. Yes, handmaidens and concubines still existed in Christ's day. Are things really so much different in the world today? Or do we just live in denial of clandestine practices that many prefer to keep hidden, private, and occult? Serial monogamy is an oxymoron. Anyone practicing it is a polygamist.
Paul was alarmed because of this peculiar form of fornication occuring in the early church. He had to set the record straight: Notice that he does NOT speak against the father of the son for having more than one wife, but rather Paul addresses the sin directly. Paul points out that this sort of practice of having one's father's wife is not even so much as named among the Gentiles for good reason: the practice of monogamy was the prefered custom of the Roman Gentiles although the affluent were permitted three forms. "Monogamy" was a good deal more in fashion with Rome than it was with the children of Israel. Deuteronomy 22:30 clarifies the matter without a doubt. Being Jews they knew that this was a great sin. The Apostle Paul states that this custom wasn'tso much as named among the Gentiles!
The sin of fornication mentioned in 1Corinthians 5 was not at all the practice of having more than one wife. The sin mentioned here was specifically a sin of incest because the wife described was indeed ONE FLESH with the father of the son in reference. This is scriptural, this is biblical, FULL BIBLE TRUTH under the New Covenant. To my best knowledge, this is the only New Testament example of a once godly polygynous marriage that was incestuously corrupted within the Apostolic Church itself, mentioned in the Holy Bible. Nonetheless centuries later, the Roman Catholic church mandated monogamy out of the mouth of a pope. Augustine is quoted as stating that polygamous marriage, "was lawful among the ancient fathers: whether it be lawful now also, I would not hastily pronounce. For there is not now necessity of begetting children, as there then was, when, even when wives bare children, it was allowed, in order to a more numerous posterity, to marry other wives in addition, which now is certainly not lawful." However this group does not so much concern itself with the business and affairs of the Pagan church of Rome, as many others do, who also claim to be "Apostolic". Rather let it be stated that Rome has nothing in us. We know what we worship. Jesus Christ, the Only Wise God, is our only hope �?not the pope.
The Apostle Paul was speaking to the shame of the early church. Here we have a clear example of a godly man, evidently married to a number of wives (at least two, as I understand it) but a wicked son, thinking it well and good that he should have one of his father's wives for his own! Now if the son in question had actually desired his natural mother (which is highly unlikely) I do believe that the scripture would have stated so. There are still cults in practice today that commit this very abomination among others: Beastiality, sodomy, incest, and pedophilia are numbered among them - interestingly enough, a man having more than one wife is not once named an abomination unto God in the HOLY BIBLE. A woman who takes more than one husband while another husband yet lives (polyandry) is called an adulteress. A man who takes more than one wife while either wife lives only commits adultery if he takes another man's wife. Adultery is scripturally defined by the marital status of the woman. Yes, there is a difference between a man and a woman with respect to marriage. Although some might find this truth difficult to embrace, a godly woman would be wiser to understand why this truth is to her benefit and to her protection.
Deuteronomy, Chapter 22 verse 30:
A man shall not take his father's wife, nor discover his father's skirt.
1 Corinthians 5 verse 1:
It is reported commonly that there is fornication among you, and such fornication as is not so much as named among the Gentiles, that one should have his father's wife. I find it very interesting that nowhere does the Apostle Paul renounce, admonish, or upbraid any man for having a plurality of wives in the New Testament. How is it that he makes no mention of it, even in it's most corrupted form? I surrender that there is no New Testament scripture in all the Holy Bible that directly forbids a godly man to have more than one wife while yet married to the wife of his youth. Howbeit there was one who thought to change times and laws; but that man was not a Christian.The Apostle Paul does NOT forbid a man to marry more than one wife while yet married to another. So then what are the examples of immoral marriage by that are forbidden in scripture? They do exist and they ought to be made known to every elder and adult in every assembly. Sadly, not even many elders alive today in the mainstream churches know precisely what constitutes genuine, BIBLE MARRIAGE in the eyes of God. I should like to go into all of this, in detail, as other pages can afford me the room.
Ephesians 5
24
Therefore as the church is subject unto Christ, so let the wives be to their own husbands in every thing. 25 Husbands, love your wives, even as Christ also loved the church, and gave himself for it;
26 That he might sanctify and cleanse it with the washing of water by the word,
27 That he might present it to himself a glorious church, not having spot, or wrinkle, or any such thing; but that it should be holy and without blemish.
28 So ought men to love their wives as their own bodies. He that loveth his wife loveth himself.
29 For no man ever yet hated his own flesh; but nourisheth and cherisheth it, even as the Lord the church:
30 For we are members of his body, of his flesh, and of his bones.
31 For this cause shall a man leave his father and mother, and shall be joined unto his wife, and they two shall be one flesh.
32 This is a great mystery: but I speak concerning Christ and the church.
33 Nevertheless let every one of you in particular so love his wife even as himself; and the wife see that she reverence her husband.
It is the words of Jesus Christ that intrigue me the most:
Matthew 25
Then shall the kingdom of heaven be likened unto ten virgins, which took their lamps, and went forth to meet the bridegroom. And five of them were wise, and five were foolish. They that were foolish took their lamps, and took no oil with them: But the wise took oil in their vessels with their lamps. While the bridegroom tarried, they all slumbered and slept. And at midnight there was a cry made, Behold, the bridegroom cometh; go ye out to meet him. Then all those virgins arose, and trimmed their lamps. And the foolish said unto the wise, Give us of your oil; for our lamps are gone out. But the wise answered, saying, Not so; lest there be not enough for us and you: but go ye rather to them that sell, and buy for yourselves. And while they went to buy, the bridegroom came; and they that were ready went in with him to the marriage: and the door was shut. Afterward came also the other virgins, saying, Lord, Lord, open to us. But he answered and said, Verily I say unto you, I know you not. Would Jesus resort to this example if it were a sin for a man to be so?
The CHANGELESS ONE certainly made them ONE from the BEGINNING. Notice also, what a great multitude of persons will be found in the BRIDE and in the BODY of Christ. Are they not also ONE? How is it then, that a number of souls too great to count are ONE? No matter how many times you repeat these words they do not transform into different words. They do not magically convert into the words: "only one wife". I am one with my wife and I am one with my wife. Just as Abraham was ONE with Hagar, so am I ONE with my wife. Just as Abraham was ONE with Sarah, so am I ONE with my wife. Just as JESUS in the book of Revelation (New Testament example) is ONE HUSBANDMAN over a union comprising a MULTITUDE OF PERSONS (plural) in the ONENESS of a Holy Bride. (Revelation 7:9)
See also: Redress to the Neo-Feminist Wife of an Apostolic Pastor