Let's have a peak at how things are gearing up on the Strait and Narrow Way...

From: †Believer�? Sent: 04/02/2007 10:19 PM

For I am jealous over you with godly jealousy:  for I have espoused you to one husband, that I may present you as a chaste virgin to Christ.  II Cor. 2:11
 
"To add to this information, "you" is the second person plural pronoun in the King's English.   The verse would use "thee" if the King James translators had wanted the second person singular pronoun." - Bible Scholar
 
 So why didn't the King James translators continue to use proper english and say "that I may present you as 'chaste virgins' to Christ." if "you" was suppose to be the plural?

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From: LeahsGrace Sent: 05/02/2007 4:05 AM

Doesn't the KJV describe the bride as one? and yet there are many virgins in the one bride? Both many brides and one virgin are emphasized.  There is singularity and plurality in the bride(s).
 
It is "you" that determines of plurality.  The word "you" is plural no matter if virgin is singular.  "You" is plural in King's English.   The King James translators would have used "thee" if the espoused were singular.  The King James was translated properly. 
 
There are many other instances of the bride as being composed of many.  Jehovah refer to His wives as "them" and also He beckons one wife to come back. 
 
Having many brides, they all have personal relationships with God, each individual is important in the church and each is individually responsible to keep oil in their lamps.

Amen Leahs Grace!

Personally I would have stated that I would answer the question concerning the translation into the plural "virgins" when they could tell me why all these translators were trinitarians. The fact is, that although those translators were indeed fallible and could have possibly better translated some of the words to more accurately reflect the Greek, (which we know they have forbidden) the fullness of the truth had to be contained in the gospel. God preserved it in the work of the translators to satisfy the fullness of the interpretation circumspectly.

For I am jealous over you with godly jealousy:  for I have espoused you to one husband, that I may present you as a chaste virgin to Christ.

Sounds to me like God will not share His glory with another Husbandman. If the bride were comprised of ONLY ONE WIFE then the only way that the equation could be satisfied is if ONLY ONE SOUL ever got saved. Wasn't Paul addressing a MULTITUDE in this verse? We appear to be approaching a model where the MALE is singular and the FEMALE is plural, are we not?